Part 2
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Figure 3: Massachusetts death certificate data. Source: John Beaudoin.
You might also find it interesting to know that the timeframe in the definition of a COVID-19 death was changed from
60 days to
30 days and this subsequently lowered the number of COVID-19 deaths by 15%. How much lower would that percentage be if mis-assigned deaths that were clearly from trauma, like the kind sustained from a car crash were removed from the COVID-19 death count? Would COVID-19 still be the #1 cause of death? I dare say, no way.
I found another definition of a COVID-19 death that read:
In April 2021, a death was classified as COVID-19-associated if it was determined that the virus directly caused or contributed to the person’s death, the person had a diagnosis within 60 days and had no other obvious cause of death, such as trauma.³
This makes far more sense to me since at least car crash victims could not have COVID-19 written up as the cause of death. But a ‘diagnosis’ within 2 months? And was this an actual diagnosis or a best guess based on a sketchy ‘test’ and
pneumonia-like symptoms?
The CDC also have a definition of a COVID-19 death:
A COVID-19–associated death occurred in a person with a documented COVID-19 diagnosis who died, and whose report local health authorities reviewed (e.g., using vital records, public health investigation, or other data sources) to make that determination. Per national guidance, this group should include persons whose death certificate lists COVID-19 disease or SARS-CoV-2 as an underlying cause of death or as a significant condition contributing to death. Rates of COVID-19 deaths by vaccination status are reported based on when the patient was tested for COVID-19, not the date the patient died.⁴
Again, the question about ‘diagnosis’ arises. And that last phrase is a bit weird to me. From what I understand, it means that 2 individuals, uninjected and injected, who both died on the same day, but were ‘tested for COVID-19’ in January and March, respectively, will have their ‘COVID-19 death’ report written down as having occurred in January and in March, respectively, not both in March when they actually died.
But did we even need symptoms? According to Norman Fenton, we did not.
In the UK a covid case ONLY required a positive PCR test (symptoms were not needed) and anybody who was PCR positive within 28 days of death had covid on their death certificate. 'Officially' (but only after 2 years) the UK government said they were only going to classify covid deaths those for which covid was a contributory factor.⁵
You can read about his analysis
here. Just imagine the over-counting of the COVID-19 deaths!
The question remains,
who was written down as a COVID-19 death, and what percentage of these were valid? In my opinion, there is no reason to ‘test’ an individual who ODs on fentanyl, for example, for COVID-19. Presumably, there is no relationship between their OD and whether or not they had some version of SARS-CoV-2 at one point or another. So every single death certificate with whereby the individual ODed should be unclassified as a COVID-19 death, if they were so classified. Same thing goes for trauma deaths. And a plethora of other mis-assigned deaths!
I think we can all agree based on these evidences that the actual COVID-19 death count is far lower than portrayed, so if we assume that COVID-19 death counts are lower in ‘reality’ than are being reported, then what I would like to know is this: Is the discrepancy between the over-count and real-count proportional over time?
We might also wonder what the incentives were behind mis-attributing cause of death. Were there incentives? Were there motives, or was it really just a difference in the number of days to COVID-19 ‘diagnosis’ issue? Was it simply a ‘diagnosis’ issue, for that matter, as in: mass misdiagnoses? Who assigned the 60 day timeframe? Who changed it 30 to manifest a lower COVID-19 death count? Did the switch to 30 days to lower the death count on March 11, 2022 have anything to do with making it look like the shots were working? Could the 60 days have been assigned to make it look like more people were dying from COVID-19 than actually were? Were doctors paid to write COVID-19 on death certificates as the cause of death? Were parents of demised children asked to change the cause of death to COVID-19? Why would a doctor who actually saw an individual die from car crash trauma include any information about COVID-19 on that individual’s death certificate with regard to cause of death?
Let’s be blunt. It would be to the benefit of the producers of COVID-19 injectable products and anyone profiting off of them, to over-count COVID-19 deaths to make it appear as though there was
certainly a good reason to get ‘vaccinated’ - ie: to prevent severe illness or dying from COVID-19, for example, as per the guidelines and recommendations of the CDC. No one wants to die from ‘deadly virus’, right? Funny how people don’t seem to mind dying from an experimental injection. Sorry. I had to.
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Figure 4: CDC ‘facts’. Source:
https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/vaccines/safety.html
For some references to my snarky emboldened comments framed in bright green in Figure 4, go
here,
here,
here and
here. Please feel free to add references in comments.
So… in the face that the ‘COVID-19 death’ count is far lower than it has been made to appear…
What is a COVID-19 death?
I consulted with my all-cause mortality buddies (Jonathan, Martin, Norman, Clare, Joel, Danny, Shahar, Retsef, Josh and a mouse) on this and got a great array of answers. To me, the following would be a suitable definition:
An individual who presents with respiratory symptoms associated with SARS-CoV-2 infection - as confirmed by sequence validation - who subsequently progresses to severe COVID-19 (due to withholding of life-saving treatments⁶
) and death.
This definition would
not weed out respiratory-related (
pneumonia) cases with nosocomial (hospital-acquired) SARS-CoV-2 involvement.⁷ The number of
pneumonia death cases with COVID-19 as a true contributing condition⁸ are likely quite low, and would depend on the timeframe to death from exposure to SARS-CoV-2 and the frailty of the individual. In these rare cases, however, it would be appropriate to list COVID-19 as a contributing condition on the death certificate.
But the thing is that this definition was not used and it begs the question: How many people who had non-SARS-CoV-2 respiratory symptoms went to the hospital and got ‘tested’, died and deemed a COVID-19 death? All of them, by my guess. So that basically means, everyone. Every
pneumonia case. So how many COVID-19 deaths were there in actuality?
I dare say that
Denis Rancourt, whose work I admire and appreciate, would likely claim there were
no COVID-19 deaths, since he would argue that all of the deaths occurred due to effects that the
humans imposed, and not due to the effects of a virus.
Let’s agree for argument’s sake, since I would like to examine some data (and we are using government-sourced data) that a COVID-19 death includes individuals whose death certificate lists COVID-19 disease or SARS-CoV-2 as an underlying cause of death or as a significant condition contributing to death, as per the CDC definition. Let’s just accept for now that many, many individuals (perhaps all) have been counted as COVID-19 deaths that weren’t.
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